• EleventhHour@lemmy.world
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          4 months ago

          Nope. Wetness is something water can only give to other things, not itself or other liquids.

          Water is not wet. And no matter how you try to reason through this, you will continue to be wrong.

          • BigBananaDealer@lemm.ee
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            4 months ago

            it cant make other liquids wet because its already wet by nature. thats just what liquids are. no matter how many times you tell me im wrong, i’ll always know you are wrong

            • EleventhHour@lemmy.world
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              4 months ago

              it cant make other liquids wet because its already wet by nature

              incorrect. this is the association fallacy-- you cannot prove it is wet other than through fallacy. wetness is only a property it can give to other things, not a property it possesses itself. water can’t be wet simply because it makes something else wet.

              therefore, you are wrong.

              no matter how many times you tell me im wrong, i’ll always know you are wrong

              and, for that, you’ll always be wrong.

              • BigBananaDealer@lemm.ee
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                4 months ago

                so if someone asks if a towel is dry do you say “actually dryness is not something a towel can possess itself, only give to other things”

                • EleventhHour@lemmy.world
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                  4 months ago

                  a towel is not water. dryness is not wetness.

                  you’re using the association fallacy and the false equivalence fallacies again, which is how you’re wrong.

                  • BigBananaDealer@lemm.ee
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                    4 months ago

                    no its you being a hypocrite, which is why you are wrong

                    water is wet, and everything you try saying how it “only gives wetness but doesnt have it” just further is proving how water is wet. because everything that touches it becomes wet, besides water, because ita already wet