Before the 1960s, it was really hard to get divorced in America.

Typically, the only way to do it was to convince a judge that your spouse had committed some form of wrongdoing, like adultery, abandonment, or ā€œcrueltyā€ (that is, abuse). This could be difficult: ā€œEven if you could prove you had been hit, that didnā€™t necessarily mean it rose to the level of cruelty that justified a divorce,ā€ saidĀ Marcia Zug, a family law professor at the University of South Carolina.

Then came a revolution: In 1969, then-Gov. Ronald Reagan of California (who was himself divorced) signedĀ the nationā€™s first no-fault divorce law, allowing people to end their marriages without proving theyā€™d been wronged. The move was a recognition that ā€œpeople were going to get out of marriages,ā€ Zug said, and gave them a way to do that withoutĀ resorting to subterfuge. Similar laws soon swept the country, and rates ofĀ domestic violence and spousal murderĀ began to drop as people ā€” especially women ā€” gained more freedom to leave dangerous situations.

Today, however, a counter-revolution is brewing:Ā Conservative commentatorsĀ andĀ lawmakersĀ are calling for an end to no-fault divorce, arguing that it has harmed men and even destroyed the fabric of society. Oklahoma state Sen. Dusty Deevers, for example,Ā introduced a billĀ in January to ban his stateā€™s version of no-fault divorce. The Texas Republican Party added a call to end the practice to itsĀ 2022 platformĀ (the plank is preserved inĀ the 2024 version). Federal lawmakers like Sen. J.D. Vance (R-OH) andĀ House Speaker Mike Johnson, as well as former Housing and Urban Development SecretaryĀ Ben Carson, have spoken out in favor of tightening divorce laws.

  • mosiacmango@lemm.ee
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    6 months ago

    No, generally that marriage would be annulled. Its far too short for any mingling of assets, so none would be split.

    Generally any individual assets prior to a marriage stay individual. If you own a house outright and marry, your spouse doesnt immediatly get half of it. If you buy a house after you marry, then yes the house is split as its an asset that both parties put value into. Itā€™s like an automatic pre-nup for marriages that already exists.

    Despite the ridiculous scenario you imagined above, judges and lawyers arenā€™t actually idiots. You dont have to make up hypotheticals to figure out how asset sharing in marriage or divorce works. The law is pretty clear, and there are millions of examples of both you can easily research instead of deciding there is something to be outraged about.

    • KevonLooney@lemm.ee
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      6 months ago

      That guy is just repeating what he heard on the radio or from some drunk guy at a bar. Heā€™s not putting any thoughts into it.

      Besides what you mentioned, there are pre-nups, post-nups, trusts, and other complicated ways that rich families use to protect their assets from gold-diggers. Marriage is a legal contract and it can be modified with other legal contracts.

      In a lot of cases, ā€œtrust fund kidsā€ donā€™t even own their house or car. Itā€™s all held in a trust so no one, not even them, can have it. If they divorce thereā€™s nothing to split but some cash and whatever furniture or toys they own.

      In practice, I believe the pre or post-nup gives some consideration (money) to the spouse who isnā€™t rich so they wonā€™t sue. But itā€™s not 50/50 because the trust fund kid legally doesnā€™t own much.

      • mosiacmango@lemm.ee
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        6 months ago

        Yeah, Im not even sure if he knows what hes arguing about.

        All of these ā€œproblemsā€ these conservatives are whinging about are already understood and settled with our current system. The default works well for the vast majority, and when it doesnt, you can change it. Easy.